Hamelech bichvodo tamid yimloch aleinu le-olam va-ed ve-al kohl ma-asav. Why not: yimloch aleinu ve-al kohl ma-asav le-olan va-ed? It is so much more natural and reads so much better! Moreover, ostensibly le-olam va-ed ought to apply to kohl ma-asav as well as to aleinu! On the other hand, though, what does [might] yimloch al kohl ma-asav mean? Are creations, creatures, or inanimate objects ruled over by a king, One Who is their Creator? The suggestion is, therefore, that it does not apply to these others.In regard to the first question, perhaps there is this to say: Only aleinu is He (will He be) molich le-olam va-ed; but al kohl ma-asav not. If so, why so? And again, what does melucha over sub-humans come to? But if it does apply to things inanimate and sub-human, then why does the verse express itself in the seemingly unnatural way of placing ve-al kohl ma-asav after le-olam va-ed?
Another thing: Do we have a seeming redundancy on our hands: tamid and le-olam va-ed? Evidently, tamid applies to kohl ma-asav too. But if so, why shouldn’t le-olam va-ed be able to do so as well.
Here’s what it occurred to me. Creations (of all kinds) have spiritual entities associated with them (on a one-to-one basis). Tamid, in regard to His melucha, applies both to them and to us. But le-olam va-ed only relates melucha to us. Tamid connotes uninterruptedness (continuousness); olam va-ed, everlastingness.